Trustee Risk Adviser — Liquidity Event Decision Readiness

The mandate

An investment trustee risk forum wants assurance that it will receive usable information and the right decisions during a liquidity event, rather than discover its role only after management activates a crisis plan. Existing exercises rehearse operational response but provide limited evidence of trustee decision readiness. The adviser will challenge escalation timing, information completeness and the investor consequences presented to the forum.

The twelve-month retainer starts on 26 October 2026, protecting four days each month with one quarterly trustee risk session included. Monthly work combines a scenario challenge and a concise readiness note; planned tabletop participation falls within the reserved capacity. Urgent papers are acknowledged by the next business day, with written advice within two business days once the relevant scenario, fund facts and specialist constraints arrive.

The standing question is what the forum can reasonably decide at each stage and which information must arrive before that choice becomes ineffective. A trigger may appear sensible but depend on data unavailable during the event. An option may protect liquidity while affecting investors differently, requiring qualified legal and compliance interpretation. The adviser will identify those dependencies and ask how management will communicate uncertainty rather than wait for a complete but late picture.

The appointment provides no line authority and places no executive responsibility for fund or crisis operations on the adviser. Manager executives own incident actions, trustees exercise their established governance powers and qualified specialists determine legal obligations. No trusteeship, directorship or fiduciary appointment is created. The adviser cannot instruct asset sales, suspend an investor service or certify that a particular crisis action is lawful.

In the eleventh month, renewal requires the forum chair's written recommendation and approval by the governing trustee body. Continuing advice must sit under a separate written appointment capped at twelve months; its decision-readiness scope, protected days and fee are settled afresh rather than extended by default. Other appointments are permitted up to two concurrent retainers if capacity and information barriers remain credible. Relationships with the fund manager, material counterparties or investors affected by a scenario require disclosure; conflicting interests may require restricted papers, recusal or termination of the advisory arrangement.

What you will own

• Challenge trustee escalation triggers against actual information availability, asking whether the forum will learn of a material event while meaningful governance choices remain rather than after management's actions become irreversible.
• Examine proposed decision papers for the fund facts, alternatives and uncertainties required, recommending improvements where a confident summary conceals missing information relevant to investor consequences.
• Probe the lead times and dependencies of management's crisis options, distinguishing an available operating choice from one requiring specialist advice, counterparty cooperation or authorisation not yet secured.
• Shape tabletop questions that test forum readiness under incomplete evidence, helping participants rehearse appropriate challenge and escalation without directing the operational response selected by management.
• Recommend clearer treatment of investor effects in scenario discussions, preserving differences between groups and the qualified legal or compliance conclusions needed before trustees consider a proposed action.
• Advise on readiness records and unresolved follow-up, ensuring failed information or decision-timing tests remain visible until the appropriate owner supplies evidence of an effective correction.
• Review later scenarios against prior challenge themes, highlighting whether the forum's decision capability improved while leaving fund operations, investment execution and crisis command with their authorised leaders.

Candidate qualifications

• Demonstrate senior asset-management, investment enterprise risk or trustee-facing governance experience with practical liquidity or crisis decisions. Describe a scenario or event where decision makers received information too late or in an unusable form, the risk question you raised and the governance improvement that followed. Evidence should show independent judgement rather than only attendance at a successful continuity exercise.
• Bring applied understanding of investment operations, liquidity uncertainty and escalation under incomplete evidence. Relevant proof should distinguish an observable trigger from a metric unavailable during disruption and recognise the timing constraints of proposed response options. Explain how you tested a crisis choice's feasibility without assuming authority to execute it or guarantee its outcome.
• Show concise advisory communication and careful judgement about investor consequences and specialist boundaries. Describe a proposed action whose effects differed across investor groups, the questions you recommended and the legal or compliance input required. The adviser must make uncertainty intelligible to trustees while respecting their governance duties and avoiding an implied professional opinion outside the financial risk expertise actually exercised.
• Establish protected monthly and urgent-paper capacity, quarterly attendance and full disclosure of manager, counterparty and investor relationships. Evidence should include practical confidentiality and independence decisions, with reliable written follow-up. The retainer calls for constructive scenario challenge and readiness learning without taking a fiduciary appointment, directing crisis actions or favouring a response that benefits another concurrent advisory interest.

Application

Applications for this mandate are received in one way only: through the India Board Terminal's application process. It is automated end to end. Your Executive Passport travels to the mandate holder in its confidential form, your answers to the three questions below are read before anything else in your file, and every stage that follows is recorded on your applications page.

There is no address to write to and no intermediary to call. The mandate holder reads what the Terminal delivers and nothing else, which is what keeps the process the same for every applicant and keeps your name out of it until you release it. Applications close on 14 October 2026. Mandate reference CVU-ADV-2026-IND-079.